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  1. fatima
    June 11, 2012 @ 9:47 pm

    hassan, in the second sentence it should be hafta guzishta, why you have written hafta pesh?
    please explain, and if i write : dostam hafta guzishta aan khana ra paida na kard. will it be wrong? please tell,

    • Helder Cardenas
      January 23, 2013 @ 11:32 pm

      I think its because last week = one week ago

  2. fatima
    June 11, 2012 @ 10:02 pm

    sorry i meant the third sentence

    • Mohammad Yaseen محمد یاسین
      June 12, 2012 @ 3:14 am

      I think you are right, it should have been ‘hafta e guzishta’. My اردو sense says so too, ‘hafta e pesh’ means ago week, which to me, doesn’t make sense. Also in sentence no. 9 ‘pesh’ is used. It is a bit confusing. a confirmation in necessary

  3. Clueless
    July 18, 2012 @ 5:14 pm

    “Three days ago” is spoken “seh ruz e pish.” But the “e” is not written. What is it? To say “last week” is “haefteh ye gozaeshteh” and the “ye” is not written. What is that? Are these markers? Sounds inserted to make pronunciation of the phrase smoother? What? Help!

    • Umer Toor
      August 20, 2012 @ 4:34 pm

      @ clueless. I speak Urdu, which is mix of Arabic, Persian, etc. This is just sound. In urdu or arabic to help pronounce “ye” properly we insert a dash below the first word: haefteh (a slanted dash below last letter of haefteh).

      See this first lesson, where he has shown it on letters.

    • John
      November 27, 2013 @ 1:16 pm

      @ clueless. The “e” is called the ezafa and this is used to connect a noun to an adjective. eg.. kitab “e” jadid” = new book. with the word ending in ه adding an ezafe will turn the pronunciation into “ye”.. (anyone feel free to elaborate on that or if i have missed something)

  4. asiankhanom
    March 30, 2013 @ 9:57 am

    Salam Hassan Baradar! May Allah Bless you :D.. My boy friend is persian and so i should learn Farsi. and i am loving it. Your website will hopefully bond our love. Kheilii Mamnoon.

  5. Syed
    April 4, 2013 @ 5:42 am

    Baradar hassan tadressay shuma bisyar khoub ast.i cant pronounce very well but can understand very wel and trying as much as i can read and learn persian.I am urdu speaking.Udrum means lushkar(army)Turkish,persian,and arabic based langauge is called urdu.

  6. Abiha Taqvi
    April 25, 2013 @ 4:45 pm

    can we use hafteh gozishteh instead of hafteh pish

  7. Ella Press
    April 30, 2013 @ 3:05 pm

    Hassan, how do we know how to pronounce the words if there aren’t written vowels?
    Cheers, Ella

    • JomarGenavia
      May 2, 2013 @ 9:17 am

      Its my problem too! but I’d figure it out by creating my own vowels and try to read it on your own idea like for example khandan if its written in farsi its hard to read but try to add e, a, or i sound maybe you will hit the right pronoun cation!!! hope it helps

      • florence
        November 21, 2016 @ 5:29 pm

        you can try to listen to some persian music or short subtitled persian videos and listen carefully. After a short time you will begin to develop a natural sense of what sounds right and wrong in the pattern of the language.

    • Michael
      December 14, 2014 @ 12:08 am

      my impression is that certain consonants together always use the same sort of hidden vowel, like کر will always be /kær/ and you just have to sort of pick up on those overtime as there are too many combinations to memorize

  8. Meteora
    June 12, 2013 @ 9:16 pm

    Hello, in sentence 10, isnt it “pesaret” instead of “pesaretan”?

  9. ariane alana
    July 20, 2013 @ 5:41 am

    Hey Meteora, Pesaretan can be for ‘your son’ (plural) or ‘your son’ (formal) so i guess both pesaret and pesaretan work just fine. I think :p

  10. Brian K. Wright
    December 28, 2013 @ 12:20 am

    Is anyone else disturbed by the tone of these sentences? Especially numbers 5 through 12? They seem somewhat dark and violent…….

    • Tony Soprano
      December 28, 2013 @ 5:52 am

      May be Hassan had a depressing day :)..

      Relax Brian. He writes these lessons on his own. So probably he had difficulty in coming out with these sentences, so he just penned down whatever he was watching on the Tele, probably a violent series.

  11. Elie Mouhanna
    June 3, 2014 @ 1:34 pm


    The lessons are really helpful and well prepared. However, I’m still confused with the position of “Time” in sentences like the first and the second. For instance: Why place “diru:z” between the subject and the object. I tried to compare the sentence structure to ones in previous exercises in hope of understanding the rule, in vain. I know you said that beginners shouldn’t worry about that. I just hope things will be clarified in the next lessons.

    Elie Mouhanna

  12. Annk
    July 16, 2014 @ 10:10 am

    Why in 3rd sentence its “maa raa madrassa dar…” , instead of “maa dar madrassa ra….”..
    Shouldnt “raa” come after the object…

  13. Qurratulain
    July 16, 2014 @ 10:12 am

    Why in the 3rd sentence its “maa raa madrassa dar…” , instead of “maa dar madrassa ra….”..
    Shouldnt “raa” come after the object…

  14. Qurratulain
    July 16, 2014 @ 10:13 am

    Sorry my msg got duplicated

  15. Andrej
    November 23, 2014 @ 2:26 pm

    Thank you Hassan for this part – Useful Drills. These exercises help me to practice my knoledge. Good idea – some easy sentences and their translations. Thank you.

  16. Andrej
    November 24, 2014 @ 1:30 pm

    Hassan, in the sentence number 10 the word پسر is translated as “son”. But doesn´t it mean “boy” instead? Or are both meanings correct? Thank you.

  17. Zahra
    December 8, 2014 @ 3:52 am

    How are we supposed to know when to put ‘ra’ after a noun with a possessive pronoun ending? For example, in this useful drills page, for the sentence “I didn’t touch your book.”, you specify not to put ‘ra’ after ‘ketabat’. However, in the practice sentences in Lesson 18, “I saw you friend in the street today” (sentence #1) there is a ‘ra’ after ‘doostat’.
    What is the difference in these 2 cases?


    • Jan
      December 27, 2014 @ 12:06 am

      Zahra, I think this is not about possessive pronoun ending but about the verb “to touch”. “To touch ‘something'” you say “beh ‘something’ dæst zædæn” and I think that in that case the “beh” part performs the function of “ra”. It is only my guess though….

      • mohammad mj
        July 15, 2015 @ 12:13 pm

        you’re 100% right Jan.wish you luck!